Unique Top-selling CCSP Exams - New 2023 ISC Pratice Exam
ISC Cloud Security Dumps CCSP Exam for Full Questions - Exam Study Guide
The CCSP certification is targeted towards professionals working in cloud security, including IT and information security professionals, cloud architects, cloud engineers, and security consultants. To be eligible for the CCSP exam, candidates must have a minimum of five years of IT experience, with at least three years of experience in information security and one year of experience in cloud computing. Alternatively, candidates with a bachelor's degree in a related field can substitute one year of experience.
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NEW QUESTION # 146
Your company is in the planning stages of moving applications that have large data sets to a cloud environment.
What strategy for data removal would be the MOST appropriate for you to recommend if costs and speed are primary considerations?
- A. Crypthographic erasure
- B. Overwriting
- C. Media destruction
- D. Shredding
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Cryptographic erasure involves having the data encrypted, typically as a matter of standard operations, and then rendering the data useless and unreadable by destroying the encryption keys for it. It represents a very cheap and immediate way to destroy data, and it works in all environments. With a cloud environment and multitenancy, media destruction or the physical destruction of storage devices, including shredding, would not be possible. Depending on the environment, overwriting may or may not be possible, but cryptographic erasure is the best answer because it is always an available option and is very quick to implement.
NEW QUESTION # 147
If a company needed to guarantee through contract and SLAs that a cloud provider would always have available sufficient resources to start their services and provide a certain level of provisioning, what would the contract need to refer to?
- A. Guarantee
- B. Assurance
- C. Reservation
- D. Limit
Answer: C
Explanation:
A reservation guarantees to a cloud customer that they will have access to a minimal level of resources to run their systems, which will help mitigate against DoS attacks or systems that consume high levels of resources.
A limit refers to the enforcement of a maximum level of resources that can be consumed by or allocated to a cloud customer, service, or system. Both guarantee and assurance are terms that sound similar to reservation, but they are not correct choices.
NEW QUESTION # 148
Which of the following security measures done at the network layer in a traditional data center are also applicable to a cloud environment?
- A. Redundant network circuits
- B. Direct connections
- C. Trust zones
- D. Dedicated switches
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Trust zones can be implemented to separate systems or tiers along logical lines for great security and access controls. Each zone can then have its own security controls and monitoring based on its particular needs.
NEW QUESTION # 149
DNSSEC was designed to add a layer of security to the DNS protocol.
Which type of attack was the DNSSEC extension designed to mitigate?
- A. Data exposure
- B. Account hijacking
- C. Snooping
- D. Spoofing
Answer: D
Explanation:
DNSSEC is an extension to the regular DNS protocol that utilizes digital signing of DNS query results, which can be verified to come from an authoritative source. This verification mitigates the ability for a rogue DNS server to be used to spoof query results and to direct users to malicious sites. DNSSEC provides for the verification of the integrity of DNS queries. It does not provide any protection from snooping or data exposure.
Although it may help lessen account hijacking by preventing users from being directed to rogue sites, it cannot by itself eliminate the possibility.
NEW QUESTION # 150
Being in a cloud environment, cloud customers lose a lot of insight and knowledge as to how their data is stored and their systems are deployed.
Which concept from the ISO/IEC cloud standards relates to the necessity of the cloud provider to inform the cloud customer on these issues?
- A. Transparency
- B. Openness
- C. Disclosure
- D. Documentation
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Transparency is the official process by which a cloud provider discloses insight and information into its configurations or operations to the appropriate audiences. Disclosure, openness, and documentation are all terms that sound similar to the correct answer, but none of them is the correct term in this case.
NEW QUESTION # 151
In a federated identity arrangement using a trusted third-party model, who is the identity provider and who is the relying party?
- A. The users of the various organizations within the federations within the federation/a CASB
- B. Each member organization/a trusted third party
- C. Each member organization/each member organization
- D. A contracted third party/the various member organizations of the federation
Answer: D
Explanation:
In a trusted third-party model of federation, each member organization outsources the review and approval task to a third party they all trust. This makes the third party the identifier (it issues and manages identities for all users in all organizations in the federation), and the various member organizations are the relying parties (the resource providers that share resources based on approval from the third party).
NEW QUESTION # 152
Above and beyond general regulations for data privacy and protection, certain types of data are subjected to more rigorous regulations and oversight.
Which of the following is not a regulatory framework for more sensitive or specialized data?
- A. FedRAMP
- B. HIPAA
- C. PCI DSS
- D. FIPS 140-2
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The FIPS 140-2 standard pertains to the certification of cryptographic modules and is not a regulatory framework. The Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCI DSS), the Federal Risk and Authorization Management Program (FedRAMP), and the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) are all regulatory frameworks for sensitive or specialized data.
NEW QUESTION # 153
What concept does the "T" represent in the STRIDE threat model?
- A. Tampering with data
- B. Transport
- C. TLS
- D. Testing
Answer: A
Explanation:
Any application that sends data to the user will face the potential that the user could manipulate or alter the data, whether it resides in cookies, GET or POST commands, or headers, or manipulates client-side validations. If the user receives data from the application, it is crucial that the application validate and verify any data that is received back from the user.
NEW QUESTION # 154
A truly airgapped machine selector will ____________.
Response:
- A. Be made of composites and not metal
- B. Terminate a connection before creating a new connection
- C. Have total Faraday properties
- D. Not be portable
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 155
Which of the following is NOT something that an HIDS will monitor?
- A. User logins
- B. Network traffic
- C. Critical system files
- D. Configurations
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A host intrusion detection system (HIDS) monitors network traffic as well as critical system files and configurations.
NEW QUESTION # 156
If a cloud computing customer wishes to guarantee that a minimum level of resources will always be available, which of the following set of services would compromise the reservation?
- A. CPU and storage
- B. CPU and software
- C. CPU and memory
- D. Memory and networking
Answer: C
Explanation:
A reservation guarantees to a cloud customer that they will have access to a minimal level of resources to run their systems, which will help mitigate against DoS attacks or systems that consume high levels of resources.
A reservation pertains to memory and CPU resources. Under the concept of a reservation, memory and CPU are the guaranteed resources, but storage and networking are not included even though they are core components of cloud computing. Software would be out of scope for a guarantee and doesn't really pertain to the concept.
NEW QUESTION # 157
Which of the following actions will NOT make data part of the "create" phase of the cloud data lifecycle?
- A. Importing data
- B. Modifying metadata
- C. Constructing new data
- D. Modifying data
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
Although the initial phase is called "create," it can also refer to modification. In essence, any time data is considered "new," it is in the create phase. This can come from data that is newly created, data that is imported into a system and is new to that system, or data that is already present and modified into a new form or value.
Modifying the metadata does not change the actual data.
NEW QUESTION # 158
Which of the following roles is responsible for preparing systems for the cloud, administering and monitoring services, and managing inventory and assets?
- A. Cloud service operations manager
- B. Cloud service deployment manager
- C. Cloud service business manager
- D. Cloud service manager
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The cloud service operations manager is responsible for preparing systems for the cloud, administering and monitoring services, providing audit data as requested or required, and managing inventory and assets.
NEW QUESTION # 159
Which concept of cloud computing pertains to the ability to reuse components and services of an application for other purposes?
- A. Portability
- B. Interoperability
- C. Elasticity
- D. Resource pooling
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 160
Every security program and process should have which of the following?
- A. Foundational policy
- B. Multifactor authentication
- C. Severe penalties
- D. Homomorphic encryption
Answer: A
Explanation:
Policy drives all programs and functions in the organization; the organization should not conduct any operations that don't have a policy governing them. Penalties may or may not be an element of policy, and severity depends on the topic. Multifactor authentication and homomorphic encryption are red herrings here.
NEW QUESTION # 161
Tokenization requires two distinct _________________ .
- A. Encryption
- B. Databases
- C. Personnel
- D. Authentication factors
Answer: B
Explanation:
In order to implement tokenization, there will need to be two databases: the database containing the raw, original data, and the token database containing tokens that map to original data. Having two-factor authentication is nice, but certainly not required. Encryption keys are not necessary for tokenization. Two- person integrity does not have anything to do with tokenization.
NEW QUESTION # 162
Where is an XML firewall most commonly deployed in the environment?
- A. Between the IPS and firewall
- B. Between the presentation and application layers
- C. Between the firewall and application server
- D. Between the application and data layers
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
XML firewalls are most commonly deployed in line between the firewall and application server to validate XML code before it reaches the application.
NEW QUESTION # 163
Upon completing a risk analysis, a company has four different approaches to addressing risk. Which approach it takes will be based on costs, available options, and adherence to any regulatory requirements from independent audits.
Which of the following groupings correctly represents the four possible approaches?
- A. Accept, deny, transfer, mitigate
- B. Accept, dismiss, transfer, mitigate
- C. Accept, avoid, transfer, mitigate
- D. Accept, deny, mitigate, revise
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Explanation:
The four possible approaches to risk are as follows: accept (do not patch and continue with the risk), avoid (implement solutions to prevent the risk from occurring), transfer (take out insurance), and mitigate (change configurations or patch to resolve the risk). Each of these answers contains at least one incorrect approach name.
NEW QUESTION # 164
Which format is the most commonly used standard for exchanging information within a federated identity system?
- A. HTML
- B. XML
- C. JSON
- D. SAML
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML) is the most common data format for information exchange within a federated identity system. It is used to transmit and exchange authentication and authorization data.XML is similar to SAML, but it's used for general-purpose data encoding and labeling and is not used for the exchange of authentication and authorization data in the way that SAML is for federated systems.
JSON is used similarly to XML, as a text-based data exchange format that typically uses attribute-value pairings, but it's not used for authentication and authorization exchange. HTML is used only for encoding web pages for web browsers and is not used for data exchange--and certainly not in a federated system.
NEW QUESTION # 165
Which security certification serves as a general framework that can be applied to any type of system or application?
Response:
- A. ISO/IEC 27001
- B. PCI DSS
- C. FIPS 140-2
- D. NIST SP 800-53
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 166
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